Next: Corollary 1 Up: The Asymptotic Frequency Distribution Previous: Definition 9

Theorem 1 (Gnedenko and Kolmogorov (1954), pp. 40-42)

If the sequence $\{ F_n (x)\}$ of frequency distribution functions converges weakly as $n \to
\infty$ to a proper distribution function F(x), then, for any choice of the constants an > 0 and bn, the sequence $\{ F_n (a_n x + b_n)\}$ can converge to a proper distribution only if this is of the same type as F(x).

Proof: Suppose that as $n \to
\infty$, $F_n (x) \Rightarrow
F(x)$ and $F_n (a_nx + b_n ) \Rightarrow G(x)$, and that both F and G are proper. We wish to prove that there exist a > 0 and b such that

G(x) = F(ax+b).

Choose a sequence of real positive integers $n_1 < n_2 < \ldots < n_k
< \ldots$ such that the limits $\lim_{k \to \infty} a_{n_k} = a$ and $\lim_{k \to \infty} b_{n_k} = b$ $(0 \leq a \leq + \infty, - \infty
\leq b \leq + \infty)$ exist. For simplicity of notation in the following discussion, we will renumber the sequences

\begin{displaymath}
a_{n_k} \equiv a_k \quad \text{and} \quad b_{n_k} \equiv b_k \quad
(\text{for } k = 1,2,3, \ldots ).\end{displaymath}

Then, the limits become $\lim_{k \to \infty}ak = a$ and $\lim_{k \to
\infty} b_k = b.$

We now proceed to prove that $0 < a < + \infty$. Suppose that $a =
+\infty$. Let u be the least upper bound of the numbers x for which

\begin{displaymath}
\begin{array}[t]
{c}\overline{\lim} \\  \scriptstyle k \to \infty\end{array} (a_k x + b_k) < + \infty. \end{displaymath}

Choose x and v such that v < x < u. Now

(ak v + bk) = (ak v - ak x) + (ak x + bk)

or

\begin{displaymath}
\begin{array}[t]
{c} \overline{\lim} \\  \scriptstyle k\to\i...
 ...ine{\lim} \\ \scriptstyle k \to\infty\end{array} (a_k x + b_k),\end{displaymath}

since $a_k \to \infty$ by assumption and v - x < 0; $\overline{\lim}
_{k \to \infty} (v-x)a_k = -\infty$. The other limit, $\overline{\lim} _{k \to \infty} (a_kx+b_k) < \infty$, is finite or $-\infty$ since x < u. Thus, $\overline{\lim} _{k \to \infty} (a_k
v + b_k) = -\infty$ for all v < u, and so G(v) = 0 for v < u.

If v > u, by definition of u,

\begin{displaymath}
\begin{array}[t]
{c} \overline{\lim} \\  \scriptstyle k\to\infty\end{array} (a_k v + b_k) = + \infty.\end{displaymath}

Hence, G(v) = 1 for v > u. If G(v) < 1 and

\begin{displaymath}
\begin{array}[t]
{c} \underline{\lim} \\  \scriptstyle k \to...
 ...ine{\lim} \\  \scriptstyle k\to\infty\end{array} (a_k v + b_k),\end{displaymath}

then Fk (ak v + bk) would have two limits as $k \to\infty$, and it would be false that $F_k (a_k x + b_k) \Rightarrow G(x)$.

In summary, if we assume that $a = \infty$, then G(v) = 0 for v < u, and G(v) = 1 for $v \geq u$. But then G(x) is improper, which contradicts our hypothesis that Fn (anx + bn) converges to a proper distribution.

It is immediately apparent that b is finite, for if $0 \leq a <
\infty$ and $b = \infty$, then $\lim_{k \to \infty} (a_k x + b_k) =
+\infty$ and G(x) = 1 for all x. Similarly, if $0 \leq a <
\infty$ and $b = -\infty$, then $\lim_{k \to\infty} (a_kx + b_k) =
-\infty$ and G(x) = 0. In either case, G(x) is improper, with the discontinuity at $-\infty$ and at $+\infty$, respectively. Hence, b is finite.

Finally, we consider the case where a = 0. Since $\lim_{k\to\infty}
b_k = b$, given any $\epsilon \gt 0$, there exists a K1 such that for k > K1, $\vert b_k - b\vert < \epsilon/2$ or $b - (\epsilon/2) < b_k < b +
(\epsilon/2)$. Then, since a = 0 and $\lim_{k\to\infty} a_k =a$for any finite x, there exists a K2 such that if k > K2, then $\vert a_kx\vert < \epsilon/2$. Thus, $-\epsilon/2 < a_k x < \epsilon/2$.Combining the inequalities,

\begin{displaymath}
b-\epsilon = b - \frac{\epsilon}2 - \frac{\epsilon}2 < a_k x + b_k < b
+ \frac{\epsilon}2 + \frac{\epsilon}2 = b + \epsilon.\end{displaymath}

Finally, since $\epsilon \gt 0$ is arbitrary, we may choose $\epsilon$so that $b + \epsilon$ and $b - \epsilon$ are continuity points of F(x). Now, for any finite k,

\begin{displaymath}
F_k (b-\epsilon) \leq F_k (a_k x + b_k) \leq F_k (b+\epsilon).\end{displaymath}

Taking limits as $k \to\infty$,

\begin{displaymath}
F(b-\epsilon) \leq G(x) \leq F (b+\epsilon).\end{displaymath}

Since x may assume any value,

\begin{displaymath}
1 = \lim_{x \to\infty} G(x) \leq F(b+\epsilon), \end{displaymath}

\begin{displaymath}
0 = \lim_{x \to - \infty} G(x) \geq F(b-\epsilon).\end{displaymath}

Then, since $\epsilon$ is arbitrary,

\begin{displaymath}
F(x) = 1 \text{ for } x \geq b, \end{displaymath}

\begin{displaymath}
F(x) = 0 \text{ for } x < b.\end{displaymath}

But, this contradicts the hypothesis that F(x) is proper. Hence, it must be that $a \neq 0$.

We have now demonstrated that under the conditions of the hypothesis, the limits of the subsequences $\{ a_k\}$ and $\{ b_k\}$ are such that $0 < a < \infty$ and b is finite.

Now we proceed to prove that G(x)= F(ax+b). Choose x so that F(x) is continuous at the point ax+b and G(x) is continuous at the point x. Then,

 
 \begin{displaymath}
\lim_{k\to \infty} F_k (a_k x + b_k) = G(x), \qquad \text{by
definition}.\end{displaymath} (1)

Now, $\lim_{k\to\infty} (a_kx + b_k) = ax+b$, so that for n sufficiently large and finite x, given any $\epsilon \gt 0$,

\begin{displaymath}
ax + b - \epsilon \leq a_k x + b_k \leq ax +b+\epsilon,\end{displaymath}

where $\epsilon$ is chosen so that F is continuous at the points $ax+b-\epsilon$ and $ax + b+\epsilon$. It follows that

\begin{displaymath}
F_k (ax+b-\epsilon) \leq F_k (a_k x + b_k) \leq F_k (ax+b+\epsilon).\end{displaymath}

Taking limits as $k \to\infty$,

\begin{displaymath}
F(ax+b-\epsilon) \leq \begin{array}[t]
{c} \underline{\lim} ...
 ...\to\infty
 \end{array} F_k (a_kx + b_k) \leq F
(ax+b+\epsilon).\end{displaymath}

Now, since ax+b is a continuity point of F(x), and since $\epsilon$is arbitrary, we obtain

 
 \begin{displaymath}
F(ax+b) = \lim_{k\to\infty} F_k (a_k x + b_k).\end{displaymath} (2)

Combining Eqs. (1) and (2),

F(ax+b) = G(x),

which proves the theorem.



 
Next: Corollary 1 Up: The Asymptotic Frequency Distribution Previous: Definition 9

Leon Borgman
3/10/1998